The W3C Recommendation RDF 1.1 Semantics states that if an RDF graph S contains
ex:xxx ex:aaa "sss"^^ex:ddd .
for ex:ddd in D, then S entails, recognizing D,
ex:xxx ex:aaa _:nnn .
_:nnn rdf:type ex:ddd .
Given RDFS entailment patterns.
Can we also say that it entails
ex:xxx ex:aaa _:nnn .
_:nnn rdf:value "sss" ;
rdf:type ex:ddd .
?
[Edit to reflect on the comment.]
If not, why? How could "sss"^^ex:ddd imply _:a rdf:type ex:ddd . and not _:a rdf:value "sss"; rdf:type ex:ddd .? Does it really need to be an entailment pattern? Isn't it enough that rdf:value denotes the value of the resource? Isn't it implied that if "sss"^^ex:ddd allows us to say "Oh, there's a resource of type ex:ddd!" then we can also state its value?
[End of edit]
And if it is, does this
ex:a ex:p [ rdf:value "1" ; rdf:type xsd:integer ] .
Entails this
ex:a ex:p "1"^^xsd:integer .
?
I cannot find any rule backing this up, but it makes intuitive sense to me that somehow "sss"^^ex:ddd is logically equivalent to _:a rdf:value "sss"; rdf:type ex:ddd .
I think my question is equivalent to this one: is an rdfs:Literal "x" a rdfs:Resource of rdf:value "x"?